B.com Business Accounting

1. Purchase Book records:

a. All Cash Purchases

b. All Credit Purchases

c. Credit Purchase of goods in trade

d. None of the above

2. A bank reconciliation statement is prepared to know the causes for the differances

between:

a. The balances as per cash column of cash book and the pass book

b. The balances as per bank column of cash book and the pass book

c. The balances as per bank column of cash book and cash column of cash book

d. None of the above

3. Fundamental Accounting Assumptions are:

a. Materiality

b. Business entity

c. Going Concern

d. Dual Aspect

4. Which of the following errors are not revealed by the Trial Balance:

a. Compensating Errors

b. Errors of Commission

c. Wrong Balancing of an account

d. Wrong totalling of an account

5. Which of the following is of capital nature:

a. Purchase of goods

b. Cost of repair

c. Wages paid for installation of machinary

d. Rent of a factory

6. Which of the following is not a sub fild of accounting:

a. Management accounting

b. Cos accounting

c. Financial accounting

d. Corporate accounting

7. The determination of expenses for an accounting period is based on the principle of:

a. Objectivity

b. Matriality

c. Matching

d. Periodicity

8. Which account is the odd one:

a. Furniture

b. Land and buldings

c. Stock of raw materials

d. Plant and machinery

9. Which of the following is the exmple of external users of accounting information:

a. Government

b. Owners

c. Management

d. Employees

10. Which financial statement represents the accounting equation

“assets=liabilities+owners’ equity”

a. Trading account

b. Profit and loss account

c. Balance sheet

d. Statement of cash flows

11. All the expenditures and reciepts of revenue nature go to:

a. Income statement

b. Trial balance

c. Balance sheet

d. Profit & Loss appropriation account

12. “Business unit is separate and distinct from the owner of it”, is based on

a. Money measurement concept

b. Going concern concept

c. Business entity concept

d. Dual aspect concept

13. If two or more transactions of the same nature are journalised together having either

the debit or credit account common is known as:

a. Compound journal entry

b. Separate journal entry

c. Posting

d. Journalising

14. Parties to a bill of exchange are:

a. Drawer

b. Drawee

c. Payee

d. All of the above

15. A ______ is sent to a customer when he returns the goods.

a. Debit note

b. Credit note

c. Proforma invoice

d. Bill

16. A ______ is sent to the seller when he is taken back the sold goods.

a. Debit note

b. Credit note

c. Proforma invoice

d. Bill

17. Noting Charges are paid at the time of _________ of a bill.

a. Retirement

b. Renewal

c. Dishonour

d. Endorcement

18. Depreciation of fixed assets is an example of ______ expenditure.

a. Revenue

b. Deferred revenue

c. Petty

d. Capital

19. Interest on drawings is ______ for business.

a. Expenditure

b. Loss

c. Gain

d. Investment

20. Writting of the transaction in the ledger is called ________

a. Posting

b. Journalising

c. Balancing

d. Auditing

21. The balance of petty cash is _________

a. An expense

b. Income

c. Asset

d. Liability

22. A withdrawl of cash from the business by the proprietor should be credited to:

a. Drawings A/c

b. Capital A/c

c. Cash A/c

d. Current A/c

23. Drawings account is in the nature of ______

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Suspense account

24. Prepaid expenses account is in the nature of _________

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Suspense account

25. Patent right account is in the nature of ___________

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Suspense account

26. Narrations are given at the end of ___________

a. Final accounts

b. Trial blance

c. Each ledger accounts

d. Each journal entry

27. All of the following are functions of accounting except:

a. Decision making

b. Measurement

c. Forecasting

d. Ledger posting

28. “Treating a revenue expense as a capital expenditure” is an example of:

a. Compensating error

b. Errors of principle

c. Errors of omission

d. Errors of commission

29. Which of the following lists the balance and the title of accounts in the ledger on a given

date?

a. P&L Account

b. Balance sheet

c. Income statement

d. Trial balance

30. Under straight line method, depreciation is calculated on:

a. Written down value

b. Scrap value

c. Original cost

d. Revaluation cost

31. Transactions between owner and business are recorded as per:

a. Periodicity

b. Going concern

c. Prudence

d. Business entity

32. Which of the following is not a transaction?

a. Goods are purchased on cash basis for Rs. 1000.

b. Salaries paid for the month of May 2009.

c. Land is purchased for Rs. 10 lacs.

d. An employee is dismissed from the job.

33. Payment of personal expenses of the owners of business need to be recorded as:

a. Drawings

b. Liabilities

c. Expenses

d. Gains

34. If the date of maturity of a bill is a holiday, then the bill will mature on:

a. Next working day

b. Preceding working day

c. Holiday itself

d. Other agreed day

35. ______ principle requiers that the same accounting method should be used from one

accounting period to the next.

a. Conservatism

b. Business entity

c. Consistency

d. Money measurment

36. The petty cashier generally works on _________ system.

a. Accrual

b. Imprest

c. Balancing

d. None of these

37. “Asset should be valued at the price paid to acquire them” is based on:

a. Accrual concept

b. Realisation concept

c. Money measurement concept

d. Cost concept

38. Difference of totals of both debit and credit side of the trial balance is transfered to:

a. Suspense account

b. Trading account

c. P&L account

d. Current account

39. Carriage inward is debited to:

a. Suspense account

b. Trading account

c. P&L account

d. P&L appropriation account

40. Expenses incurred to retain the title of a building is a ______.

a. Revenue expenditure

b. Capital expenditure

c. Deffered revenue expenditure

d. None of these

41. Discounting of bill by the drawer is done with _________.

a. Creditor

b. Drawee

c. Bank

d. Notary

42. It is generally assumed that the business will not liquidate in the near foreseeable future

because of:

a. Periodicity

b. Materiality

c. Matching

d. Going concern

43. Double colomn cash book records:

a. Only cash transactions

b. All transactions

c. Cash and bank transactions

d. Cash purchase and cash sales transactions

44. Errors of commission donot permit:

a. Correct totaling of the trial balance

b. Correct totaling of the balance sheet

c. Trial balance to agree

d. None of these

45. All the following have debit balance except one. That account is ______.

a. Wages account

b. Debtors account

c. Goodwill

d. Bills payable account

46. A bill of exchange requires _________

a. Acceptance

b. Registration

c. Noting

d. None of these

47. Outstanding salary account is:

a. Real account

b. Personal account

c. Nominal account

d. Suspense account

48. Drawings are deducted from _______.

a. Sales

b. Purchases

c. Expenses

d. Capital

49. Purchase returns appearing in the trial balance are deducted from _________.

a. Purchase

b. Sales

c. Capital

d. Creditors

50. ______ will generally show a debit balance.

a. Bank loan

b. Bad debts recovered

c. Salary payable

d. Drawings

51. Purchase of a fixed asset on credit basis is recorded in _______.

a. Cash book

b. Purchase book

c. Journal propper

d. None of the above

52. Vikas & Co. is a :

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Suspense account

53. Depreciation arises because of:

a. Fall in the market value of the asset

b. Fall in the value of money

c. Physical wear and tear of the asset

d. Inflation in the market

54. A promissory note does not require:

a. Acceptance

b. discounting

c. Noting

d. None of these

55. Which of the following account will have credit balance?

a. Sales returns

b. Bills recievable

c. Carriage inwards

d. Outstanding wages

56. Prepaid salary has a:

a. Credit balance

b. Debit balance

c. Negative balance

d. Zero balance

57. Goodwill is _______

a. Current account

b. Fictitious asset

c. Tangible asset

d. Intangible asset

58. Joint venture account is _________

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Suspense account

59. When money is withdrawn from the bank, the bank _____ the account of the customer.

a. Credits

b. Debits

c. Either (a) or (b)

d. None of these

60. The cash account allowed to a debtor should be credited to:

a. Discount account

b. Customers’ account

c. Sales account

d. None of the above

61. In case of debit balance, the words ______ are written on the debit side.

a. To balance b/d

b. To balance c/d

c. By balance b/d

d. By balance c/d

62. The amount spent on the maintanance of plant & machinery is a _________.

a. Capital Expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred capital expenditure

d. Deferred revenue expenditure

63. Bank pass book is also known as _________.

a. Bank book

b. Bank account

c. Bank coloum

d. Bank statement

64. Capital expenditure are recorded in the __________.

a. Balance sheet

b. Profit & loss account

c. Trading account

d. Manuacturing account

65. Accounts receivable normally has ________ balance.

a. Credit

b. Debit

c. Favourable

d. Negative

66. An account is a formal record of changes in items of _________ nature.

a. Revenue

b. Expense

c. Debit

d. Similar

67. All the following errors do not affect the trial balance, except:

a. Compensating error

b. Errors of complete omission

c. Errors of partial omission

d. Errors of principle

68. Financial statements are the part of ________.

a. Accounting

b. Book keping

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

69. The areas where in different accounting policies can be adopted are:

a. Providing depreciation

b. Valuation of inventories

c. Valuation of investments

d. All of the above

70. Bank account is _________.

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Intangible real account

71. “Advance recieved from customersis not taken at sales.” is based on:

a. Money measurement concept

b. Accrual consent

c. Consistency concept

d. Conservation

72. Heavy amount spent on advertisement is ________

a. Capital Expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred capital expenditure

d. Deferred revenue expenditure

73. Cost of goods sold can be calculated by:

a. Balance sheet

b. Profit & loss account

c. Trading account

d. Manuacturing account

74. The amount on repairs of newly purchased old motor car is debited to ______

a. Repairs account

b. General expenses account

c. Motor car account

d. None of these

75. Suspense account Dr.balance Rs.2000 in trial balance, will be recorded in the ______.

a. Liability side of the balance sheet

b. Asset side of the balance sheet

c. Cr.side of the P&L account

d. Dr.side of the P&L account

76. Liability for a bill discounted is a ___________.

a. Current liability

b. Contigent liability

c. Fixed liability

d. Long term liability

77. Capital braught in by the proprietor is an example of ________.

a. Increase in asset and increase in liability

b. Increase in liability and decrease in asset

c. Increase in asset and decrease in liability

d. Decrease in asset and decrease in liability

78. Cost of removal of business to a more convenient locality is _________.

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Deferred capital expenditure

79. Salary Rs.2000 payable to clerk is credited to _______.

a. Salary account

b. Cash account

c. Clerk’s account

d. None of these

80. Total of purchase return book is posted periodically to the credit of _____

a. Purchase return account

b. Cash book

c. Journal propper

d. None of these

81. Loss on issue of debentures is treated as ________

a. Intangible asset

b. Current asset

c. Current liability

d. Miscellaneous expenditure

82. In case of credit balance, the words _______ are written on the credit side.

a. To balance b/d

b. To balance c/d

c. By balance b/d

d. By balance c/d

83. Prepaid insurance given in trial balance is recorded in _______

a. Trading account

b. P&L account

c. Balance sheet

d. None of the three

84. In a bank reconciliation statement, if you start with balance as per cash book, then

dividend collected by bank but not yet entered in the cash book within the period are__.

a. Added

b. Deducted

c. Not requiered to be adjusted

d. None of the above

85. Reserve for doubtful debts account is a ______.

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Intangible real account

86. Bank overdraft has a _______ balance.

a. Debit

b. Credit

c. Negative

d. Favourable

87. Under annuity method, interets is calculated on:

a. Original cost

b. Scrap value

c. Writtten down value

d. None of the three

88. Journal proper records :

a. Bills receivable

b. Bills payables

c. Cash payments

d. Opening entry

89. If two or more transactions of he same nature are journalized together having either the

debit or the credit account common is known as ________.

a. Compound journal entry

b. Separate journal entry

c. Posting

d. Ledger posting

90. Following is not the example of external users

a. Government

b. Management

c. Investors

d. Suppliers and other creditors

91. If the effect of an error is cancelled by the effect of some other error, it is commonly

known as _________.

a. Error of principle

b. Compensating errors

c. Error of omission

d. Error of commission

92. Interest on capital is _________.

a. An expenditure

b. An appropriation

c. A gain

d. A revenue

93. Commission recieved in advance account has a :

a. Credit balance

b. Debit balance

c. Negative balance

d. None of the above

94. Insurance unexpired account is a :

a. Personal account

b. Real account

c. Nominal account

d. Intangible real account

95. The amount spent on painting the new factoy. It is a_________.

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Deferred capital expenditure

96. Cash iscount allowed to a debtor should be credited to :

a. Discount account

b. Customers account

c. Sales account

d. Cash account

97. B/R is a _______.

a. Tangible asset

b. Intangible asset

c. Fixed asset

d. Current asset

98. Which of the following account will have debit balance?

a. Reserve for doubtful debts

b. Outstanding wages

c. Capital (machinery braught into business)

d. Loan to contractor

99. Which of the following error is an error of principle?

a. Wages paid to R has been debited to his account

b. The total of purchase journal has not been posted to puechase account

c. Sales to X Rs.200, posted to his account as Rs.2000

d. Furniture purchased on credit from N posted to machinery account

100. Discounting, Endorcement and collection of bill of exchange s made by :

a. Drawer

b. Drawee

c. Bank

Creditor Business Accounting (Section 2)

1. Sales return appearing in the trial balance are deducted from _________.

a. Capital

b. Sales

c. Purchase

d. Cash

2. The trial balance shows closing stock of Rs.30,000. It will be recorded in __________.

a. Trading account

b. Profit and loss account

c. Profit and loss appropriation account.

d. Balance sheet

3. Carriage outward is debited to ______.

a. Trading account

b. P/L Account

c. Profit and loss appropriation account.

d. Balance sheet

4. Material costing Rs.700 in the erection of a machinery and wages paid for it amounting

to Rs.400 should be debited to _____________.

a. Material account

b. Wages account

c. Purchase account

d. Machinery account

5. Differance of totals of both debit and credit side of the trial balance is transfered to ___.

a. Current account

b. Suspense account

c. Trading account

d. P/L Account

6. Which of the following is correct?

a. Capital = Asset – Liabilities

b. Capital = Asset + Liabilities

c. Asset = Liabilities – Capital

d. Liabilities = Asset + Capital

7. All of the following have debit balance except one. That account is ________.

a. Loan to contractor

b. Debtors account

c. Wages outstanding account

d. Goodwill

8. Which of the following statement is not true?

a. Book keeping is concerned with recording of financial data.

b. Goods given as sample should be credited to purchase account.

c. The balance of petty cash is an asset.

d. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to bad debts A/c.

9. Fundamental accounting assumptions are:

a. Going concern

b. Accrual

c. Consistency

d. All of the three

10. Municipal tax of Rs.5000 under dispute is a _________.

a. Contigent liability

b. Current liability

c. Revenue loss

d. None of these

11. Writting of transaction in the ledger is called _______.

a. Journalising

b. Posting

c. Balancing

d. Costing

12. In the Ledger there are _________ coloumns.

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 10

13. Carriage charges paid for a new plant purchased if debited to carriage A/c would effect:

a. Plant A/c

b. Carriage A/c

c. Plant and Carriage A/c

d. None of these

14. The expired portion of capital expenditure is shown in the financial statement as _____.

a. An income

b. An expense

c. An asset

d. A liability

15. Users of accounting information include _____

a. Creditors

b. Lenders

c. Customers

d. All the above

16. Accounting standards in India are issued by ____________.

a. Central Govt.

b. State Govt.

c. Institute of charted accountants in India.

d. RBI

17. Cost of exceptional repairs of non recurring nature by way of overhauling of the entire

plant is:

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Capital loss

18. Unexpired commission is _________.

a. Nominal A/c

b. Real A/c

c. Representative personal A/c

d. None of the above

19. The accounting policies once adopted are not changed unless there is an urgent need

for such change is based on

a. Money measurement concept

b. Accrual concept

c. Consistency

d. Conservation

20. Depletion method of depreciation is used in ______.

a. Cattle, loose tools .. etc

b. Mines and quarries

c. Machinery and building

d. None of these

21. Goods purchased from A passed through the sales book. The rectification of this error

will result in __________.

a. Decrease in gross profit

b. Increase in gross profit

c. No effect in gross profit

d. Increase in sundry debtors

22. Book debts normally has _______ balance.

a. Credit

b. Debit

c. Unfavourable

d. None of the above.

23. Outstanding wages in trial balance is recorded in ________.

a. Trading account

b. P/L Account

c. Profit and loss appropriation account.

d. Balance sheet

24. Errors are ______ mistakes.

a. Intentional

b. Unintentional

c. Undetected

d. None of these

25. _____ is not added in the total of the balance sheet.

a. Fixed liability

b. Current liability

c. Conigent liability

d. Outstanding liability

26. _______ reserve is not shown in the balance sheet.

a. General reserve

b. Secret reserve

c. Capital reserve

d. None of these

27. Capital expenditure provide _______ benefits.

a. Long period

b. Short period

c. Very short period

d. None of these

28. The amount incurred on structural alterations to existing asset whereby its revenue

earning capasity is increased is ________

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Capital loss

29. Debts written off as bad if recovered subsequently are ________.

a. Credited to bad debts recovered A/c

b. Debited to the P&L A/c

c. Credited to debtors’ A/c

d. None of the above

30. Bills payable is __________.

a. Nominal A/c

b. Real A/c

c. Personal A/c

d. None of the above

31. Human assets have no place in accounting records is based on_______.

a. Money measurement concept

b. Accrual concept

c. Consistency

d. Conservatism

32. Sales return book records _______________.

a. Cash sales return

b. Credit sales return

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Purchase return

33. Accounts payable normally has _________ balance.

a. Credit

b. Debit

c. Unfavourable

d. None of the above

34. Depreciation on machinary in trial balance is recorded in _________.

a. Trading account

b. P/L Account

c. Profit and loss appropriation account.

d. Balance sheet

35. Fixed capital A/c is credited with __________.

a. Interest on capital

b. Profit of the year

c. Salary of the partner

d. None of the above

36. Interest on drawings is ________ for the business.

a. Expense

b. Capital

c. Gain

d. Noneof the three

37. Loss leads to reduction in ____________.

a. Liability

b. Capital

c. Income

d. Asset

38. Financial position of the business is ascertined on the basis of ___________

a. Records prepared under book keeping process

b. Trial balance

c. Accounting report

d. None of the above

39. The determination of expenses for an accounting period is based on the principle of:

a. Objectivity

b. Materiality

c. Matching

d. Periodicity

40. Rent payable to the landlord is credited to ____________.

a. Cash A/c

b. Landlord A/c

c. Rent A/c

d. None of the three

41. Bad debt entry passed in:

a. Sales book

b. Cash book

c. Journal book

d. None of these

42. Goods were sold on credit basis to X for Rs.1000. this will be recorded in:

a. Cash book

b. Journal propper

c. Bills recievable book

d. Sales book

43. Compensation paid to retrenched employee is:

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Capital loss

44. Petty expenses paid in cash are recorded in:

a. Purchase book

b. Sales book

c. Petty cash book

d. Purchase return book

45. Current assets does not include:

a. Cash

b. Stock

c. Debtors

d. Furniture

46. Stock is ______.

a. Fixed asset

b. Current asset

c. Investments

d. Intangible asset

47. All the following have debit balance except:

a. 6% Debentures

b. Loan to contractor

c. Interest on debentures

d. Audit fees

48. Double coloumn cash book records :

a. Only cash transactions

b. All transactions

c. Cash and bank transactions

d. Cash purchase and cash sales transactions

49. Salary and wages is debited to:

a. Trading account

b. P/L Account

c. Profit and loss appropriation account.

d. Balance sheet

50. Wages and salary is debited to:

a. Trading account

b. P/L Account

c. Profit and loss appropriation account.

d. Balance sheet

51. In a sole rade, income tax is recorded as ___________.

a. Drawngs

b. Liabilities

c. Expenses

d. None of these

52. Journal propper records _______.

a. Credit purchase

b. Credit sales

c. Purchase of asset on credit

d. Sales return

53. Capital expenditure are recorded in the ________.

a. Trading account

b. P/L Account

c. Manufacturing account

d. Balance sheet

54. Trial balance is a statement which shows the _____ or the _____ of all the accounts.

a. Balances ; Total and balances

b. Debit balances ; Credit balances

c. Opening balances ; Closing balances

d. Posted balances ; Total of balances

55. Land and building is a _________

a. Fixed asset

b. Current asset

c. Fictitious asset

d. Intangible asset

56. Rings and pistons of an engine were changed to increase the fuel efficiency is a ______.

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Capital loss

57. Which of the following is nominal account?

a. Debtors

b. Loan

c. Provision for bad debt

d. Bank over draft

58. Profit leads to increase in _____

a. Asset

b. Capital

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Fictitious assets

59. Which of the following account will have credit balance?

a. Bank over draft

b. Carriage inwards

c. Prepaid expense

d. Bills recievable

60. Three coloumn cash book records ________.

a. Only cash transactions

b. All transactions

c. Cash bank and discount transactions

d. Cash purchase and cash sales transactions

61. The value of an asset after reducing depreciation from the historical cost is known as:

a. Fair value

b. Market value

c. Book value

d. Net realizable value

62. Trial balance is prepared according to :

a. Total method

b. Balance method

c. Total and balance method

d. All the three

63. The term _______ denotes the cost of services and things used for earning revenue.

a. Income

b. Expense

c. Loss

d. Revenue

64. A person who owes money to the business is a ____________.

a. Debtor

b. Creditor

c. Investor

d. Supplier

65. A ________ is a person to whom business owes money.

a. Debtor

b. Creditor

c. Investor

d. Proprietor

66. _______ denote goods brought for sale.

a. Sales

b. Expense

c. Purchase

d. Revenue

67. Assets acquired for long term use in the business are called _________.

a. Fixed assets

b. Current assets

c. Fictitious assets

d. Liquid assets

68. ________ is an example of wasting asset

a. Cash

b. Company van

c. Mines

d. Loan

69. Assets acquired for short term use in the business are called _________.

a. Fixed assets

b. Current assets

c. Fictitious assets

d. Liquid assets

70. A ______ expenditure is incurred to maintain the business or to keep the business in

good working condition.

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Deferred revenue expenditure

d. Capital loss

71. _______ is the major source of revenue of any business.

a. Investment

b. Advances

c. Loan

d. Sales

72. _____ refers the amount invested by the owner into business.

a. Loan

b. Advance

c. Capital

d. Prepaid expenses

73. Assets having definite shape and physical existence are called ________.

a. Tangible assets

b. Intangible assets

c. Wasting assets

d. Fictitious assets

74. Assets having no physical existence but are represented by rights in certain things are

called ________.

a. Tangible assets

b. Intangible assets

c. Wasting assets

d. Fictitious assets

75. Assets which get exhausted to the extent of of extraction are called __________.

a. Tangible assets

b. Intangible assets

c. Wasting assets

d. Fictitious assets

76. Assets which have no real value but are shown in the books of accounts only for

technical reasons are called ___________.

a. Tangible assets

b. Intangible assets

c. Wasting assets

d. Fictitious assets

77. __________ are the claims of outsiders against the business.

a. Assets

b. Liabilities

c. Miscellanious expenditure

d. Investments

78. _____ are material things or pocessions or properties of the business including the

amount due to it from others.

a. Assets

b. Liabilities

c. General reserve

d. capital

79. ______ are liabilities which become due and payable within a short period.

a. Fixed liabilities

b. Long term liabilities

c. Current liabilities

d. Contigent liabilities

80. ______ are the liabilities which are payable after a long period

a. Fixed liabilities

b. Miscellanious expenditure

c. Current liabilities

d. Contigent liabilities

81. ______ is an example for long term liabilities

a. Creditors

b. Debentures

c. Overdraft

d. Bills payable

82. ______ is an example for fictitious asset

a. Machinery

b. Stock

c. Patent

d. Preliminary expenses

83. ______ is an example for tangible assets.

a. Furniture

b. Debtors

c. Patent

d. Discount on issue of shares and debentures

84. Accounting entity concept is also known as _______.

a. Going concern concept

b. Money measurement concept

c. Business entity concept

d. Accounting standards

85. The practice of apending notes regarding contigent liabilities in financial statements is in

pursuant to the convention of __________.

a. Revenue realisation

b. Full disclosure

c. Matching

d. Dual aspect

86. _______ is the collection of all accounts

a. Journal

b. Voucher

c. Invoices

d. Ledger

87. _______ is the book of original entry.

a. Journal

b. Voucher

c. Invoices

d. Ledger

88. The process of ascertaining the balance of a particular account on a given date is:

a. Posting

b. Journalising

c. Balancing

d. Accounting

89. A _________ is both a journal and ledger

a. Cash book

b. Prime book

c. Trial balance

d. None of these

90. When the buyer returns goods to the seller or an allowance is claimed from him, A

_________ is prepared.

a. Credit note

b. Debit note

c. Invoice

d. Voucher

91. Whenever goods are taken back from customers or an allowance is granted to

customers, A ________ is prepared.

a. Credit note

b. Debit note

c. Invoice

d. Voucher

92. ______ is the source document for writting purchase return book

a. Credit note

b. Debit note

c. Invoice

d. Voucher

93. ______ is the source document for writting purchase return book

a. Credit note

b. Debit note

c. Invoice

d. Voucher

94. Withdrawing more amount from the bank than the deposit in the account is termed as:

a. Deposit

b. Drawings

c. Recuring

d. Over draft

95. In case of overdraft, the pass book will show _________ balance.

a. Zero

b. Negative

c. Debit

d. Credit

96. ______ is a temporary account opened for making agree the trial balance for the

preparation of final accounts.

a. Current A/c

b. Suspense A/c

c. Personal A/c

d. Temporary A/c

97. Journal entries made to correct the errors are called _________.

a. Rectifying entries

b. Opening entries

c. Closing entries

d. Adjustment entries

98. ________ is ascertained by preparing trading A/c.

a. Net profit

b. Gross profit

c. Proposed dividend

d. Income tax

99. ________ is ascertained by preparing P&L A/c.

a. Net profit

b. Gross profit

c. Proposed dividend

d. Income tax

100. ______ is prepared to find out the cost of goods produced.

a. Trading A/c

b. P&L A/c

c. Manufacturing A/c

d. Current A/c

101. Income earned but not recieved is known as __________

a. Advance income

b. Proposed income

c. Earned income

d. Accrued income

102. Balance sheet is a / an ___________

a. Account

b. Statement

c. Collection of accounts

d. None of hese

103. _______ is the expense which is unpaid at the end of the accounting period.

a. Outstanding expenses

b. Prepaid expenses

c. Proposed expenses

d. Working capital

104. In the case of ____ method, depreciation charged in the initial years will be more

a. Fixed cost

b. Annuity

c. Dimnishing balance

d. None of these

105. ____ is to meet a libility or a diminution in the value of an asset.

a. Reserve c. Surplus

b. Depreciation d. Provision

ANSWER KEY

1. b; 2. d; 3. b; 4. d; 5. b; 6. a;

7. c; 8. d; 9. d; 10. a; 11. b; 12. c;

13. c; 14. b; 15. d; 16. c; 17. c; 18. c;

19. c; 20. b; 21. a; 22. b; 23. d; 24. b;

25. c; 26. b; 27. a; 28. a; 29. A; 30. C;

31. a; 32. B; 33. A; 34. B; 35. D; 36. C;

37. c; 38. A; 39. C; 40. B; 41. C; 42. D;

43. b; 44. C; 45. D; 46. B; 47. A; 48. A;

49. b; 50. a; 51. A; 52. C; 53. D; 54. B;

55. a; 56. A; 57. C; 58. C; 59. A; 60. C;

61. c; 62. D; 63. B; 64. A; 65. B; 66. C;

67. a; 68. C; 69. B; 70. B; 71. D; 72. C;

73. a; 74. B; 75. C; 76. D; 77. B; 78. A;

79. c; 80. A; 81. B; 82. D; 83. A; 84. C;

85. b; 86. D; 87. A; 88. C; 89. A; 90. B;

91. a; 92. B; 93. A; 94. D; 95. C; 96. B;

97. a; 98. B; 99. A; 100. C; 101. D; 102. B;

103. a; 104. C; 105. D:

1. B : 2. B: 3. C : 4. B : 5. C : 6. D :

7. C : 8. C : 9. A : 10. C : 11. A : 12. C :

13. A : 14. D : 15. B : 16. A : 17. C : 18. D :

19. C : 20. A : 21. C : 22. C : 23. A : 24. C :

25. B : 26. D : 27. D : 28. B : 29. D : 30. C :

31. d; 32. D; 33. A; 34. B; 35. C; 36. B;

37. D; 38. a; 39. B; 40. A; 41. C; 42. D;

43. C; 44. C;

45. d; 46. A; 47. B; 48. D; 49. A; 50. D; 51. C;

52. a; 53. C; 54. a; 55. D; 56. B; 57. D; 58. C;

59. b; 60. B;

61. a; 62. B; 63. D; 64. A; 65. B; 66. D; 67.C;

68. A; 69. D; 70. A; 71. B; 72. D; 73. C; 74.c;

75. B; 76. B; 77. A; 78. C; 79. C; 80. A; 81. D;

82. C; 83. C; 84. A; 85. C; 86. B; 87 . c; 88. A;

89. a; 90. B; 91. B; 92. A; 93. A; 94. B; 95. C;

96. b; 97. D; 98. D; 99. A; 100. A

B.com QT and Business Research

1

BCOM-Quantitative Techniques for Business Research

Common for Private Registration BCom(Co-oporation, Finance and Taxation & Travel

and Tourism Programme.and for BCom (CA), BCom (TT) under Off Campus Stream

1.If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, then the number of proper subsets of A is

a) 120

b) 30

c) 31

d) 32

ANS. c) 31

1. In a set – builder method, the null set is represented by

a) { }

b)

c) { x : x x}

d) { x : x = x}

ANS. c) { x : x x}

2. Two finite sets have n and m elements. The number of elements in the power set of first set is

48 more than the total number of elements in power set of the second set. Then the values of

m and n are

a) 6, 4

b) 7, 6

c) 6, 3

d) 7, 4

ANS. a) 6, 4

3. A set consisting of a definite number of elements is called a

a) Null set

b) Singleton set

c) Infinite set

d) Finite set

ANS. d) Finite set

4. If the set has p elements, b has q elements, the no of elements in A x B is

a) p + q

b) p + q + 1

c) pq

d) p²

2

ANS. c) pq

5. In a class of 200 students, 70 played cricket, 60 played hockey and 80 played football. 30

played cricket and football, 30 played hockey and football, 40 played cricket and hockey.

Find the maximum number of people playing all three games and also the minimum number

of people playing at least one game.

a) 200, 100

b) 30,110

c) 30, 120

d) None of these

ANS. b) 30, 110

6. A survey showed that 63 % of the Americans like cheese whereas 76 % like apples. If x % of

Americans like both cheese and apples, then find the range of x?

a) 0 x 23 %

b) 0 x 39 %

c) 4 x 35 %

d) 6 x 33 %

ANS. b

7. If a class with n students is organized into four groups keeping the following conditions :

• Each student belongs to exactly two groups

• Each pair of groups has exactly one student in common, what is the value of n?

a) n = 11

b) n = 7

c) n = 9

d) None of these

ANS. d

8. In a club, all the members are free to vote for one, two, or three of the candidates. 20 % of the

members did not vote, 38 % of the total members voted for at least 2 candidates. What % of

the members voted for either 1 or 3 candidates, If 10 % of the total members voted for all 3

candidates?

a) 40 %

b) None of these

c) 44 %

d) 36 %

ANS. b

9. In a survey conducted in Patna, it was found that 3/4ths of town owns color T.V., 85 % of the

people own refrigerators and every 4 in 5 in the town own music systems, what is the

minimum percentage of people who have all the three?

a) 30 %

b) 55 %

c) 40 %

3

d) None of these

ANS. c

10. In a recent survey conducted by cable T.V., among the people who watch DD, ZEE and

STAR TV., it is found that 80 % of the people watched DD, 22% watched Star TV, and 15 %

o watched Zee. What is the maximum percentage of people, who can watch all the three

channels?

a) 12.5 %

b) 8.5 %

c) 15 %

d) Data insufficient

ANS. c

11. If f : Q Q is defined as f(x) = x², then (9) =

a) 3

b) – 3

c) {-3, 3}

d)

ANS. c

12. If x 1, and f(x) = x + 1 / x – 1 is a real function, then f(f(f(2))) is

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

ANS. c

13. If f(x) = Log [(1 + x)/(1-x), then f (2x )/(1 + x²) is equal to

a) 2 f (x)

b) {f(x)}²

c) {f(x)}³

d) 3 f(x)

ANS. a

14. The range of the function f(x) = x / x is

a) R - {0}

b) R – {-1, 1}

c) {-1, 1}

d) None of these

ANS. c

15. The range of the function f(x) = x - 1 is

4

a) (- , 0)

b) [0, )

c) (0, - )

d) R

ANS. b

16. Let f(x) = x / x+ 3, then f (x + 1) =

a) 3x + 2/ x+ 2

b) x + 1 / x + 4

c) (x + 1) / (x + 3)

d) 2 x + 3 / (x + 3)

ANS. b

17. A function f(x) is such that f(x) + f(y) = f(xy). Which of the following could be f (x).

a)

b)

c) x²

d) log ax

ANS. d

18. If f(x) = c.x +1 and g(x)= 3x+2. If f(g(x)) = g(f(x))then what is the value of c?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

ANS. b

19. If f(x) = - then the value of 2(f(x))- 5f(x-1) + 2f(x-2) is

a) 1

b) -3

c) 15

d) None of these

ANS. d

20. If f(x) = + , then f(x) is

a) An odd function

b) An even function

c) Neither odd nor even

d) None of the above

ANS. b

21. If b = f(a) and f(a) = (a – 1) / (a + 1), which of the following is true?

a) f(2a) = f(a) + 1

5

b) f(1/a) = -f(a)

c) a = f(b) + f(1/a)

d) a = f(b)

ANS. b

22. Find the domain of the function y = f(x) which is defined as f(x) = (1 / {x- [x]}) [x] is the

greatest integer function

a) X is any real number other than an integer

b) And real value of x

c) All natural numbers

d) None of these

ANS. a

23. f(x) = x + y g(x) = max (x + y) (x – y) h(x) = min (x + y, x – y)

(i) g(x) f(x) (ii) g(x) + h(x) f(x) (iii) g(x) > f(x).

Which of the following are not necessarily true?

a) i and ii

b) i and iii

c) ii and iii

d) i, ii and iii

ANS. d

24. Evaluate f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + … + f(25)

a) -26

b) None of these

c) -24

d) -22

ANS. b

25. If A = {1, 2, 4} B = {2, 4, 5}, C = {2, 5} then (A – B) x (B – C)

a) {(1, 2), (1, 5), (2, 5) }

b) {(1, 4)}

c) (1, 4)

d) None of these.

ANS. b

26. If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {1,4,6, 9} and R is a relation from A to B defined by x is greater than y.

The range of R is

a) {1, 4, 6, 9}

b) {4, 6, 9}

c) {1}

d) None of these

ANS. c

6

27. Find the range for the relation : {(3, 5), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 7)

a) {2, 3}

b) {5, 6, 7}

c) {3, 2, 6}

d) {2, 3, 5}

ANS. b

28. The range of the real function f defined by f (x) = (x -1) =

a) (1, )

b) (0,1)

c) [0, )

d) ( ,0]

ANS. c

29. Let f = {(x, x² /1+x² ): x € R } be a function from R into R . range of x is

a) negative real numbers.

b) non negative real numbers.

c) positive real numbers.

d) any positive real number x such that 0 x <1

Ans. d

31. Solve f(x) = 9-x² the range is

a) {x: 3< x <0}

b) {x: 0 x 3}

c) {x: 0< x < 3}

d) {x: 3 x 0}

Ans. b

30. Let R be a relation N define by x + 2y = 8 . The domain of R is

a) {2,4,8}

b) {2,4,6,8}

c) {2,4,6}

d) {1,2,3,4}

Ans. c

31. If R is a relation on a finite set having a elements , then the number of relations on A is

a) 2a

b) 2a2

c) a²

d) aª

7

Ans: b

32. { (a, b) : a² +b² = 1} on the set S has the following relation

a) symmetric

b) reflexive and transitive

c) none

d) reflexive

Ans. a

33. If A and B are two sets containing respectively m and n distinct elements. How many

different relations can be defined for A and B?

a) 2mn

b) 2m+n

c) 2m-n

d) 2m/n

Ans. a

34. If R is the relation “is greater than” from A ={1,2,3,4,5}to B={1,3,4} , Than R-1 is

a) {(1,2) ,(1,3),(1,4),(1,5)}

b) {(3,4),(4,5),(3,5)}

c) {(1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (3,4), (1,5), (3,5), (4,5)}

d) {(2,1), (3,1), (4,1),(4,3), (5,1), (5,3), (5,4)}

Ans. c

35. A relation R ={(1,1), (1,2)}ON a ={1,2,3}. A minimum number of elements required in R so

that the enlarged relation becomes an equilance relationis

a) {(2,2), (3,3)}

b) {(2,1) , (3,1), (3,3)}

c) {(2,2), (2,1), }

d) {(2,2), (3,3), (2,1)}

Ans. d

36. Let A ={1,2,3} and R= {(1,2), (1,1), (2,3)}be a relation on A.What minimum number of

elements may be adjoined with the elements of R so that it becomes transitive.

a) (1,2)

b) (1,3)

c) (2,3)

d) (1,1)

Ans. b

37. Let R= {(x,y) :x, y belong to N, 2x+y =41}. The range is of the relation R is

8

a) {(2n +1):n belongs to N , 1 n 20}

b) {2n: n belongs to N, 1< n< 20}

c) {(2n-1) : n belongs to N, 1 n 20}

d) { (2n+2) : n belongs to N, 1< n <20}

Ans. c

38. If R is a relation from a finite set A having m elements to a finite set B having n elements,

then the number of relations from A to B is

a) 2mn

b) 2mn -1

c) 2mn

d) Mn

Ans. a

39. A set is known by its _______.

a) Values

b) Elements

c) Letters

d) Members

Ans. b

UNIT 2 NUMBER SYSTEMS AND PROGRESSION

40. Find the sum of 17 terms of the A.P. 5, 9, 13, 17, …

a) 623

b) 580

c) 629

d) 650

ANS. c

41. Find the sum of the series 2+5+8+ … +182

a) 5520

b) 5612

c) 5623

d) 5418

ANS. b

42. Insert A.M.’s (Arithmetic Mean) between 7 and 71 in such a way that the 5th A.M. is 27. The

number of A.M.s are

a) 12

9

b) 17

c) 15

d) 51

ANS. b

43. Find the 5th term from the end of the G.P. 3, 6, 12, 24, …, 12,288

a) 384

b) 192

c) 1536

d) 768

ANS. d

44. Find the Harmonic Mean between 2/3 and -4/3.

a) 8/3

b) 16/3

c) -8/3

d) -16/3

ANS. a

45. If z = (2-3i) and z²-4z+13 = 0 and hence find the value of (4z³-3z²+169)

a) 0

b) -1

c) 10

d) 9

ANS. a

46. Write the modulus of 2+ -3.

a) 7

b) 5

c) 13

d) 8

ANS. a

47. A car travels 432 km on 48 litres of petrol. How far will it travel on 20 litres of petrol?

a) 18

b) 9

c) 34

d) 180

ANS. d

48. If x and y vary inversely as each other, x = 10 when y = 6. Find y when x=15.

10

a) 25

b) 4

c) 90

d) 60

ANS. b

49. 55 cows can graze a field in 16 days. How many cows will graze the same field in 10 days?

a) 84 cows

b) 34 cows

c) 88 cows

d) 44 cows

ANS. b

50. Solve log 8/log 8 is the same as

a) 1/ 8

b) 1/8

c) ¼

d) ½

ANS. d

51. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:

a) 0.934

b) 0.958

c) 0.945

d) 0.954

ANS. d

52. If log10 2 = 0.3010, then log2 10 is equal to:

a) 0.6990

b) 1000/301

c) 699/301

d) 0.3010

ANS. b

53. A private taxi charges a fare of Rs. 260 for a journey of 200 km. How much would it travel

for Rs 279.50?

a) 215

b) 363.35

c) 186

d) 240

ANS. a

11

54. Log 36 / log 6

a) 5

b) 8

c) 3

d) 2

ANS. d

55. Evaluate Log 243 / Log 9

a) 3/2

b) 5/2

c) 7/2

d) 9/2

ANS. b

56. The value of (1+ i)(1 +i²)(1+i³)(1+ )

a) 2

b) 0

c) 1

d) i

ANS. b

57. The polar form of ( )³ is

a) Cos /2 + i Sin /2

b) Cos + i Sin

c) Cos – i Sin

d) Cos /2 - i Sin /2

ANS. d

58. If a = 1 + i , then a² equals

a) 1 – i

b) 2i

c) (1 + i)(1 - i)

d) i – 1

ANS. b

59. If is the amplitude of (a + ib) / (a – ib), then tan =

a) 2a / a² + b²

b) (a² - b²) / (a² + b²)

c) 2ab / ( a² - b²)

d) None of these

ANS. c

12

60. The argument of (1 – i) / (1 + i) is

a) – / 2

b) / 2

c) 3 / 2

d) 5 / 2

ANS. a

61. The conjugate of a complex number z = (a + ib) is

a) – a – ib

b) b – ai

c) b + ai

d) a – ib

ANS. d

62. If a = cos + I sin , then (1 + a) / (1 – a) =

a) cot / 2

b) cot

c) i cot / 2

d) i tan / 2

ANS. c

63. The sum of three numbers in G.P. is 35 and their product is 1000. The numbers are

a) 5, 10, 20

b) 20, 10, 15

c) 10, 5, 0

d) 20, 10, 10

ANS. a

64. How many terms of the A.P. 1, 4, 7, 10, … are needed to give the sum 715.

a) 21

b) 11

c) 22

d) 19

ANS. c

65. How many terms of A.P. 21, 18, 15, 12, … must be taken to give the sum zero.

a) 10

b) 15

c) 22

d) 11

ANS. b

13

66. The sum of all odd numbers between 100 and 200 is

a) 7,000

b) 8,000

c) 8,500

d) 7,500

ANS. d

67. (-3/5) x (-10/9) x (21/-4) x (-6)

a) 21

b) 42

c) 35

d) 15

ANS. a

68. The reciprocal of a negative rational number is

a) Positive

b) 0

c) 1

d) Negative

ANS. d

69. The multiplicative inverse of (-5 / 8) x (16 / 15)

a) – 2 / 3

b) 2 / 3

c) -3 / 2

d) 3 / 2

ANS. b

70. The additive inverse of (-11 / -14) is

a) 11 / 14

b) – 14 / 11

c) 14 / 11

d) – 11 / 14

ANS. d

71. ( - 3 / 2) + (5 / 4) – (- 7 / 4)

a) -2

b) 2

c) 7/4

d) 3 / 2

ANS. a

72. -6 ÷ (-8 / 17)

14

a) 48 / 17

b) – 51 / 4

c) 51 / 4

d) – 48 / 17

ANS. c

73. The twentieth term of 2, 3 2, 5 2, 7 2, … is

a) 28 2

b) 19 2

c) 30 2

d) 39 2

ANS. d

74. If n arithmetic means are inserted between 1 and 31, such that the ratio of the first mean and

the nth mean is 3 : 29, then the value of n is

a) 10

b) 12

c) 13

d) 14

ANS. d

75. If in an A.P. = n²p and = m²p, where denotes the sum of r terms of the A.P., then

is equal to

a) 1/2 p³

b) mn p

c) p³

d) (m + n) p²

ANS. c

76. The sum of all two digit numbers when divided by 4, yield unity as remainder is

a) 1200

b) 1210

c) 1250

d) None of these

ANS. b

77. If the sum of p terms of an A.P. is q and the sum of q terms is p, then the sum of p + q terms

will be

a) 0

b) p – q

c) p + q

d) –(p + q)

15

ANS. d

78. If in an infinite G.P., the first term is equal to the sum of all successive terms then its

common ratio is

a) 1 / 10

b) 1 / 11

c) 1 / 9

d) 1 / 20

ANS. b

79. The two geometric means between the numbers 1 and 64 are

a) 1 and 64

b) 2 and 16

c) 4 and 16

d) 3 and 16

ANS. c

80. If the second term of G.P. is 2 and the sum of its infinite terms is 8, then its first term is

a) 1 / 4

b) 1 / 2

c) 2

d) 4

ANS. d

81. In 15 days the earth picks up 1.2 x kgs of dust from the atmosphere. It will pick 4.8 x

kgs of dust in

a) 40 days

b) 60 days

c) 50 days

d) 30 days

ANS. b

82. Thickness of a pile of 12 cardboards is 35 mm. Hence the thickness of a pile of 294

cardboards is

a) 80.50 cm

b) 83.75 cm

c) 85.75 cms

d) 81.50 cms

ANS. c

83. 52 men can do a piece of work in 12 days. 28 men will do it in

a) 65 days

b) 60 days

16

c) 56 days

d) 67 days

ANS. a

84. 14 is called

a) Cubic surd

b) Compound surd

c) Biquadratic surd

d) Quadratic surd

ANS. d

85. Cube root of 5 x cube root of 7 is

a) Cube root of 35

b) Cube root of 12

c) Cube root of 7 / 5

d) Cube root of 2

ANS. a

86. 4 5 + 6 5 + ½ 5 =

a) 23 / 2 5

b) 12 5

c) 21/2 5

d) 2 / 3 5

ANS. c

87. = 243 is same as

a) Log3 243 = 5

b) Log5 243 = 3

c) Log243 5 = 3

d) Log243 3 = 5

ANS. a

88. The set of irrational numbers is

a) Finite

b) Countable

c) Uncountable

d) Infinite

ANS. c

89. The union of infinite number of open sets is

a) An open set

17

b) A closed set

c) Need not be an open set

d) Not a set

ANS. a

90. Find the number of words formed by permuting all the letters of SERIES

a) 177

b) 160

c) 156

d) 180

Ans. d

92. The number of different signals which can be given from 6 flags of different colours

taken one or more at a time is

a) 1958

b) 1956

c) 16

d) 64

Ans. b

93. The product of r consecutive positive integers is divisible by

a) r!

b) (r – 1)!

c) ( r + 1)!

d) None of these

Ans. a

94. If in a group of n distinct objects, the number of arrangements of 4 objects is 12 times the

number of arrangements of 2 objects, then the number of objects is

a) 10

b) 8

c) 6

d) None of these

Ans. c

18

95. From 8 gentlemen and 4 ladies, a committee of 5 is to be formed. In how many ways can

this be done so as to include at least one lady?

a) 736

b) 728

c) 280

d) 792

Ans. a

96. How many 3 digit numbers with distinct digits can be formed such that the product of the

digits is the cube of a positive integer?

a) 21

b) 24

c) 36

d) 30

Ans. d

97. The number of triangles that can be formed with 10 points as vertices, n of them being

collinear, is 110. Then n is

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Ans. c

98. The greatest possible number of points of intersection of 8 straight lines and 4 circles is

a) 32

b) 64

c) 76

d) 104

Ans. c

99. If 20Cr = 20Cr-10, then 18Cr is equal to

a) 4896

b) 816

c) 1632

d) None of these

Ans. b

100.The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines

intersecting another set of three parallel lines is

a) 6

b) 9

c) 12

d) 18

19

Ans. d

101. How many 10 digits numbers can be written by using the digits 1and 2

a)10C1 + 9C2

b) 210

c) 10C2

d) 10!

Ans. b

102. In how many ways 4 men and 4 women can be seated in a row so that men and women

are alternate?

a) 28

b) 36

c) 4! 4!

d) 2.4! 4!

Ans. d

103. At what rate% per annum will Rs 64000 become Rs68921 in 1.5 years interest being

compounded half yearly?

a) 4%

b) 6%

c) 5%

d) 7%

Ans. c

104. Find the compound interest for Rs 10000 for 2 years at 5% per annum the interest being

compounded annually.

e) Rs 1000

f) Rs 1025

g) Rs 1050

h) Rs 1100

Ans. b

105. In how much time will Rs 3000 amount to Rs 3993 at 40% p.a compounded quarterly.

a) 8 months

b) 6 months

c) 9months

20

d) 11 months

Ans. c

106. If nC12 + nC8 , then n =

20

12

6

30

Ans. a

107. The number of diagonals that can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon is

20

28

8

16

Ans. a

108. Among 14 players, 5 are bowlers. In how many ways a team of 11 may be formed with

at least 4 bowlers?

a) 265

b) 263

c) 264

d) 275

Ans. c

109. How many numbers greater than 10 lakhs be formed from 2, 3, 0, 3, 4, 2, 3?

a) 420

b) 360

c) 400

d) 300

Ans. b

110. The term without x in the expansion ( 2x – 1/2x² )12 is

a) 495

b) -495

c) -7920

d) 7920

21

Ans. d

111. The middle term of the expansion ( x -1/x )10 is

a) -252

b) -250

c) -248

d) -262

Ans. a

112. The coefficient of x-15 in the expansion of ( 3x² -a/3x³) is

a) -42/27 a7

b) -40/27 a7

c) - 43/27 a6

d) -38/27 a6

Ans. b

113. Find the 5th term in the expansion ( 1 -2x )-1

a) 15x3

b) 16x4

c) 17x5

d) 14x6

Ans. b

114. The cube root of 127 up to four places of decimal are

a) 5.0264

b) 4.1468

c) 5.0236

d) 4.1648

Ans. a

115. Using binomial theorem expansion of ( 3x + 2y)4

a) 72x4 + 21x3 y

b) 81x4 +216x3 y + 216x2y2 + 96xy3 + 16y4

c) 81x4 + 96x3y + 16x2y2 +216xy3 + 81y4

d) 37x4 + 43x3y +16y4

22

Ans. b

116. Find the term independent of x in the expansion of (x² + 1/x)9

a) 6 th term

b) 8th term

c) 7 th term

d) 8th term

Ans c

117. Find the 5th term from the end in the expansion of (x³/2 - 2/x²)9

a) -252 x²

b) -252 x³

c) -250 x²

d) -250 x³

Ans. a

118. If in the expansion of (1 + x)15 the coefficient of (2r +3)th and (r -1)th terms are equal

then the value of r is

a) 5

b) 6

c) 4

d) 3

Ans. a

119. If in expansion of (1 +y)n the coefficient of the 5th, 6th and the 7th terms are in A.P the n is

equal to

a) 7, 11

b) 7, 14

c) 8, 16

d) None of these

Ans. b

120. If Ram has 3 tickets of a lottery for which 10 tickets were sold and 5 prizes are to be

given, the probability that he will win at least one prize is

a) 7/12

b) 9/12

23

c) 1/12

d) 11/12

Ans. d

121. The probability of a bomb hitting a bridge is ½ and two direct hits are needed to destroy

it. The least number of bombs required so that the probability of the bridge being destroyed is

greater than 0.9 is

a) 8

b) 9

c) 10

d) 11

Ans. b

122. A natural number x is chosen at random from the first one hundred natural numbers.

What is the probability that (x + 100/x) > 50

a) 13/20

b) 3/5

c) 9/20

d) 11/20

Ans. d

123. The probability that a man will live 10 years is ¼ and the probability that his wife will

live 10 more years is 1/3. Then the probability that neither will be alive in 10 years as

a) 5/12

b) 7/12

c) ½

d) 11/12

Ans. c

124. In how many ways 6 rings of different type can be had in 4 fingers?

a) 4000

b) 4096

c) 4069

d) 4009

Ans. b

125. If probability P( n, r) =720 and combination C(n, r) =120 then r is

24

a) 9

b) 8

c) 5

d) 3

Ans. d

126. Find the number of non-congruent rectangles that can be found on a

normal 8*8 chessboard

a) 24

b) 36

c) 48

d) None of these

Ans: b

127. The number of positive integral solution of abc = 30 is

a) 27

b) 81

c) 243

d) None of these

Ans: c

128. Find the number of integral solutions of equation x + y + z + t = 29, x > 0 , y > 0 < z > 0

and t > 0

a) 27C3

b) 28C3

c) 2600

d) 29C4

Ans: c

129. For 1) 2a +c -2d = 5

2) –a +2b +c = 4

25

3) +b -c +3d = 1

4) 2a -b +2c -5d = 4

a) Equation 1 is dependent on 3 and 4

b) Equation 2 is dependent on 3 and 4

c) Equation 1 is dependent on 2 and 3

d) None

Ans. a

130. Solve -x +2y -3z = 2

-2y = 3

2x -y +z = 9

a) x =5/2, y =7/2, z=-7/2

b) x=-3/2, y=-11/2, z=-7/2

c) x=11/2, y=-3/2, z=-7/2

d) x=-7/2, y= -3/2, z=-11/2

Ans.c

131. Solve a + b + c +d =1

-a + b -d = 1

a -b +c = 1

b +c = 1

a) a= 2, b= 1, c= 0, d=-2

b) a=1, b=2, c=0, d=2

c) a=2, b=0, c=0, d=-2

d) a=1, b=1, c=-2, d=2

Ans. a

26

132. Solve 2a -b = 0

b +c +2d =100

a +2b +2c =60

-a +c -d =-10

a) a=2/3, b=7/3, c=78/3, d=105/3

b) a=5/3, b=2/3, c=80/3, d=100/3

c) a=2/3, b=7/3, c=80/3, d=105/3

d) A=4/3, b=8/3, c=80/3, d=106/3

Ans. d

133. Is 3x -4y +5z =6

a) Linear

b) Non linear

c) Binominal

d) None

Ans. a

134. Is xyz

a) Non linear

b) Linear

c) Binomial

d) None

Ans. a

135. Is (x+y)(x-y) = -7

a) Linear

b) Non linear

c) Monomial

27

d) None

Ans. b

136. A= 1 2

3 -1 then A-1 is

a) 1/7 2/7

3/7 -1/7

b) 2/7 1/7

-1/7 3/7

c) 1/7 2/7

-3/7 -1/7

d) 1/7 3/7

3/7 -1/7

Ans. a

137. Solve x -3y +6z = -1

2x -5y +10z = 0

3x -8y +17z = 1

a) x=4, y=5, z=1

b) x=2, y=3, z=6

c) x=5, y=6, z=2

d) x=5, y=3, z=6

Ans. c

28

138. Solve a +b +c = 0

12a +2b -3c = 5

3a +4b +c = -4

a) a=1, b=2, c=3

b) a=1, b=-2, c=1

c) a=2, b=3, c=1

d) a=2, b=2, c=3

Ans.b

139. The number of non zero rows of a matrix in its row echelon form is a

a) Row matrix

b) Column matrix

c) Rank of matrix

d) Augmented matrix

Ans. c

140. The rank of matrix 2 -4 is

-1 2

a) 2

b) 4

c) 0

d) 1

Ans. d

141. The rank of matrix 2 -4 2 is

-1 2 1

a) 3

b) 2

c) 1

29

d) None

Ans. b

142. Exogenous variables of a matrix are called

a) Endogenous variables

b) Dependent variables

c) Mixed variables

d) Independent variables

Ans. d

143. Inverse of a square matrix A, denoted by A-1 is also a square matrix of the same order such

that AA-1 is

a) A-1

b) A

c) I

d) AI

Ans. c

144. In the matrix 2 5 19 -7 the order of the matrix is

3 8 18 -3

1 9 22 -4

a) 4 × 3

b) 3 × 4

c) 2 × 3

d) 4 × 2

Ans. b

145. In the matrix A= 3 4 92 56 the number of elements are

2 8 2 4

4 -7 9 8

30

a) 12

b) 7

c) 3

d) 4

Ans. a

146. A= [aij] m x n is a square matrix, if

a) m < n

b) m > n

c) m = n

d) None

Ans. c

147. The number of all possible matrices of order 3x3 with each entry 0 or 1 is:

a) 27

b) 18

c) 81

d) 512

Ans. d

148. A diagonal matrix in which all diagonal elements are equal is called

a) Unit matrix

b) Null matrix

c) Scalar matrix

d) Triangular matrix

Ans. c

149. A square matrix with each of its diagonal elements equal to unity and all non diagonal

elements equal to zero is

a) Scalar matrix

b) Null matrix

c) Identity matrix

d) Column matrix

Ans. c

31

150. A triangular matrix can be

a) Upper triangular

b) Lower triangular

c) Both

d) None

Ans. c

151. A= 1 3 and B= 3 7 find A+B:

0 2 8 5

4 8 4 -2

a) 4 10

8 7

8 6

b) 3 21

0 10

16 -16

c) -2 -4

-8 -3

0 10

d) 3 21

0 7

8 5

32

Ans. a

152. Given x = 2 y = 1 z = 2 find 2x -3y +z

-1 2 -2

3 3 1

a) 1

3

5

b) 3

-10

-2

c) -2

7

2

d) 4

4

9

Ans. b

153. Solve the vector equation x -2 + y 5 = 10

1 -2 5

a) x = 45, y =20

b) x = 40, y=10

c) x = 35, y =30

d) x =-40, y= 15

Ans. a

33

154. Find the transpose of A = -1 5 6

3 5 6

2 3 -1

a) -1 5 6

3 3 -1

6 2 5

b) 6 5 -1

6 5 3

-1 3 2

c) -1 3 2

5 5 3

6 6 -1

d) 2 3 -1

3 5 6

-1 5 6

Ans. c

155. If A, B are symmetric matrices of the same order, then AB – BA is a

a) Skew symmetric matrix

b) Symmetric matrix

c) Zero matrix

d) Identity matrix

34

Ans. a

156. If A = cosø -sinø then A+ A` = I, if the value of ø

sin ø cosø

a) /6

b) /3

c)

d) 3 /2

Ans. b

157. If A is a square matrix such that A² = A, then (I + A )³ -7A is equal to

a) A

b) I – A

c) I

d) 3A

Ans. c

158. If the matrix A is both symmetric and skew symmetric, then

a) A is a diagonal matrix

b) A is a zero matrix

c) A is a square matrix

d) None of these

Ans. b

159. If A = a b is such that A² = I, then c - a

a) 1+ a² + bc =0

b) 1 –a² + bc =0

c) 1 –a² -bc = 0

d) 1 +a² -bc=0

Ans. c

160. Two matrices A and B are said to be equal if,

a) A and B are not of same order

b) A and B are of symmetric order

c) A and B are of null order

d) A and B are of same order

35

Ans. d

161. Find the transpose of A= 1 -1

2 3

a) 2 3

1 -1

b) 1 2

-1 3

c) 3 2

1 -1

d) 3 1

2 -1

Ans. b

162. Find P-1 , if it exist , given P = 10 -2

-5 1

a) P-1 =0

b) P-1 = 1/10 0

1/2 1

c) P-1 =1

d) P-1 does not exist

Ans. d

163. Solve the determinant A = 2 2 3

8 1 1

6 1 2

a) A = 12

b) A = -12

c) A = 13

d) A = -13

36

Ans. b

164. Matrices A and B will be inverse of each other only if

a) AB = BA

b) AB =BA = 0

c) AB =0, BA =I

d) AB = BA = I

Ans. d

165. Solve the determinant B = 1 2 4

-1 3 0

4 1 0

a) B = 48

b) B = -48

c) B = -52

d) B = 52

Ans. b

166. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 x 3, then | kA | is equal to

a) k | A |

b) k² | A |

c) k³ | A |

d) 3k | A |

Ans. c

167. Which of the following is correct:

a) Determinant is a square matrix

b) Determinant is a number associated to a square matrix.

c) Determinant is a number associated to a matrix.

d) None of these.

Ans. b

168. The rank of matrix A = 1 2 3

4 5 6

7 8 9

37

a) 3

b) 4

c) 1

d) 2

Ans. d

169. The rank of a matrix Y = 0 6 6 6

8 -7 1 0

-2 3 1 2

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 6

Ans. b

170. The area of a triangle whose vertices are ( 3, 8), ( -4, 2) and (5 ,1) is

a) 63/2

b) 51/2

c) 61/2

d) 55/2

Ans. c

171. Find values of k if area of triangle is 4sq. units and vertices are (k, 0), (4,0), (0,2)

a) 0, 8

b) 8, 0

c) 0, 0

d) 8, 8

Ans. a

172. Find values of k if area of triangle is 3sq. units and vertices are (1,3), (0,0) and (k,0)

a) +3

b) -3

38

c) ± 1

d) ±2

Ans. d

173. Equation of line joining (1,2) and (3,6) using determinants is

a) y = 3x

b) y =2x

c) x = 2y

d) x =3x

Ans. b

174. If area of a triangle is 35sq.units with vertices (2, -6), (5,4) and (k, 4). Then k is

a)12

b) -2

c) -12, -2

d) 12, -2

Ans. d

175. Equation of line joining (3,1), and(9,3) using determinants are

a) x -3y =0

b) x +3y =0

c) y +3x =0

d) y -3x =0

Ans. a

176. Minor of element 6 in the determinant A= 1 2 3

4 5 6

7 8 9

a) 3

39

b) -6

c) -3

d) -2

Ans. b

177. Minor of the element 2 of the determinant A= 2 -3 5

6 0 4

1 5 -7

a) -46

b) -4

c) 13

d) -20

Ans. d

178. Solve -x –y +z = -2

3x +2y -2z =7

x +3y -3z =0

a) y and z are linearly dependent

b) x, y, z are independent

c) x ,y and z are dependent

d) None of the above

Ans. a

179. If A is an invertible matrix of order 2, then det( A-1) is equal to

a) det( A)

b) 1/det( A)

c) 1

d) 0

40

Ans. b

180. Let A be a non singular matrix of order 3 x3.Then |adj A | is equal to

a) |A |

b) |A |²

c) | A |³

d) 3 | A|

Ans. b

181. Given 5x +3y = 8, -2x +5y =10 and 3x +ßy =4 . Equation I consistent for

a) ß =46/33

b) ß =47/33

c) ß =45/33

d) ß =41/33

Ans. b

182. The equation 6x + y =7 will have a solution if

3x + y =4

-6x -2y = a

a) a= -5

b) a= -6

c) a= -7

d) a= -8

Ans. d

183. The equation x +ky +3z = 0 posses a non trivial solution for k if

2x +ky -2z =0

2x +3y -4z =0

a) k= 2

b) k= 3

c) k= 4

41

d) k=5

Ans. c

184. The equation ax -3y +5z = 4 is inconsistent for

x –ay +3z =2

9x -7y +8az =0

a) a =2

b) a= 3

c) a =4

d) a =5

Ans. a

185. The equation x –y =a is consistent for

z +w =b

y –w = c

x +z =d

a) a = b +c +d

b) c = a +b +d

c) b = a +c +d

d) d = a +b +c

Ans. d

186. Solve x +2y +3z = 85

3x +2y +2z = 105

2x +3y +2z = 110

a) x =16, y=18, z=9

b) x=15, y=20, z=10

c) x=17, y=21, z=11

d) x=12, y=22, z=12

Ans. b

42

187. Solve 2x + y +z =7 using Cramer’s rule

3x –y –z =-2

x +2y -3z =-4

a) x=1, y=2 , z=3

b) x=2, y=4, z=3

c) x=1, y=3, z=2

d) x=2, y=3, z=4

Ans. a

188. Solve x +2y +3z =4, 2x +3y +8z =7 and x –y -9z =1 using Gauss-Jordan method

a) x=1, y=2, z=3

b) x=0, y=1, z=3

c) x=2, y=1, z=0

d) x=3, y=0, z=1

Ans. c

189. Solve 2x +5y =24 using matrix inversion

3x +8y =38

a) x=3, y=4

b) x=1, y=3

c) x=1, y=4

d) x=2, y=4

Ans. d

190. Solve x +y +z =6 using matrix inversion method

x +2y +3z =14

-x +y –z = -2

a)x=2, y=3, z=1

b) x=1, y=2, z=3

c) x=1, y=3,z=5

43

d) x=2, y=1, z=3

Ans. b

191. Solve 2x –y -2z =0

x +2y -3z =9

3x –y -4z = 3

a) x= -1, y=2, z =-2

b) x=-2, y=1, z=-1

c) x=2, y=-1, z=-2

d) x=-1, y=3,z=-2

Ans. a

192. Solve x +2y –z =3 using Cramer’s rule

3x +y +z =4

x –y +2z = 6

a) x=-3, y=6, z=5

b) x=-5, y=9, z=10

c) x=-6, y=7, z=10

d) x=-4, y=8, z=5

Ans. b

193. Solve 2a +4b =7

4a +3b =1

a) a =-5, b=3

b) a= -2, b=4

c) a= -1.7, b=2.6

d) a=-2.5, b=3.4

Ans. c

194. Solve x +2y –z =2 by finding inverse of the coefficient matrix

3x -4y +2z =1

44

-x +3y –z = 4

a) x=2, y=3, z=4

b) x=1, y=2, z=3

c) x=2, y=-3, z=-4

d) x=1, y=4, z=7

Ans. d

195. Solve x -2y +z =1

3x +y -2z =4

y -z =1

a) x=0, y=-2, z=-3

b) x=1, y=-1, z=3

c) x=-2, y=0, z=-3

d) x=2, y=-1, z=0

Ans. a

196. Solve 3x +4y +5z =18

2x –y +8z=13

5x -2y +7z =20

a) x=2, y=1, z=2

b) x=3, y=1, z=1

c) x=1, y=2, z=1

d) x=2,y=1, z=1

Ans. b

197. Solve 5x + 2y =3-x - 4y =3

a) x = -1 y =1

b) x = 1 y = -1

c) x = 0 y = 1

d) x =1 y = 0

45

Ans. b

198. Solve 2x + 5y = -10

-2x + 4y = 0

a) x = -10/9 y= -20/9

b) x= -8/9 y= -10/9

c) x= -20/9 y= -10/9

d) x= -10/9 y= -8/9

Ans. c

199. For which value of c are the lines parallel 2x – y=10

-cx + 2y =5

a) c =2

b) c=3

c) c=1

d) c=4

Ans. d

200. Are 1) 2x +4y -z = 5

2) y +z = 2

3) x + y +z = 7

a) Equation 1 is dependent on 2 and 3

b) Equation 2 is dependent on 1 and 3

c) Equation 3 is dependent on 1 and 2

d) Done of the above

Ans. d

B.com Modern Banking(sem-1)

B.com Modern Banking

B.Com- 1st Semester, Core 2

MODERN BANKING

1. Demand deposit also known as ___________________.

a) Current account b) Fixed deposit

c) Capital account d) Recurring deposit

ANS:A

2. Bank places certain restriction on withdrawal for _______________ deposit.

a) Savings deposit b) Demand deposit

c) Current account d) Fixed deposit

ANS:A

3. Mixed banking is now referred to as ______________ .

a) Commercial banking b) Universal banking

b) Merchant banking d) Development banking

ANS:B

4. ______________ is the contribution made by the shareholders of the bank.

a) Loans & advances b) cash in hand

c) Bills discounted d) Share capital

ANS:D

5. __________ was originally the home of commercial banking.

a) U.S.A b) England

c) Britain d) Germany

ANS:D

6. ____________ was initially the home of industrial or investment banking.

a) Italy b) England

c) Geneva d) Germany

ANS:D

7. The trend in India is towards ___________.

a) Mixed banking b) Development banking

c) Commercial banking d) Industrial banking

ANS:A

8. ___________ to ___________ percent of total deposit is kept as cash reserve.

a) 5 to 10 b) 11 to 15

c) 8 to 11 d) 9 To 11

ANS:D

9. Commercial banks to expand deposit through expanding their loans and advances is known as

___________.

a) Credit creation b) Trade discount

c) Deposit d) Bank advances

ANS:A

10. Rediscounting and giving advance the central bank changes interest at a rate which is known as

__________

a) CRR b) SLR

c) Bank Rate d) Credit

ANS:C

11. The nationalization of 14 commercial banks was on?

a) 19 July, 1969 b) 15 Aug, 1972

c) 15April, 1980 d) 19 Jan, 1959

ANS:A

12. The State Bank of India was established under the State Bank of India Act on?

a) 1935 b) 1948

c) 1955 d) 1952

ANS:C

13. RBI introduced 14-day intermediate Treasury Bills and 14-day Treasury bills on?

a) 1994 b) 1997

c) 1984 d) 1972

ANS:B

14 RBI introduced a bill Rediscounting Scheme in?

a) 1997 b) 1956

c) 1970 d) 1984

ANS:C

15. RBI introduced the system of repurchase of dated Government securities through addition at fixed cutoff

rate of interest is?

a) Reverse Repos b) CRR

c) LAF d) SLR

ANS:A

16. DIC stands for?

a)Deposit Investment Corporation

b)Deposit Insurance Corporation

c) Deposit Industrial Corporation

d)Development Corporation of India

ANS:C

17. ______ Commission recommended the formation of a Central bank in1926.

a)Narasimham committee

b)Bretton Wood Committee

c)Hilton-Young Committee

c)Banking Enquiry Committee

ANS:C

18. System of banking is guided by the Islamic Law called?

a)Islamic Guide b)Islamic Banking

c)Banking Regulation Act d) Shariat

ANS:D

19. Overdraft is a credit facility granted by Commercial banks to ________ holders.

a)Current Account c)Cash Account

c)Capital Amount d)Reserve Fund

ANS:A

20. Money at call and short notice is also known as?

a)Capital Market b)Inter bank call money market

c)Financial system d)Financial Call money

ANS:B

21. Creation of derivative deposit out of the money from primary deposit is called?

a)Cash Credit b)Lending Money

c)Credit Creation c)Loan and advances

ANS:C

22. The process of credit creation by the banking system as a whole is termed as ?

a)Multiple credit creation

b)Primary deposit

c)Credit creation

d)Single bank credit system

ANS:A

23. The regulator of Indian Money market is?

a)SBI b)Commercial bank

c)RBI d)SEBI

ANS:C

24. The regulator of Indian Capital Market is?

a)SEBI b)SBI

c)RBI d)Commercial Bank

ANS:A

25. Bridge Loan is also known as?

a) Swing Loan b)Term Loan

c)Demand loan d)Farm Loan

ANS:A

26. 182-day Treasury bill was introduced in Indian Money Market in?

a)19992 b)1972

c)1987 d)1952

ANS:C

27 __________ is a loan available to senior citizen.

a)Reverse mortgage b)Bridge loan

c) Personal d)Farm loan

ANS:A

28. CIBIL stands for?

a)Credit Information Bureau Ltd

b)Credit Information Banking India Ltd

c)Credit Investment Bureau India Ltd

d)Credit Information Bureau India Ltd

ANS:D

29. The value of money received today will be more than a rupee tomorrow is?

a)Time Value of money b)Present value of money

c)Future value of money d)Compound value of money

ANS:A

30. The interest computed on the principal for the entire period of borrowings?

a)Compound Interest b)Simple Interest

c)Flat Rate Interest d)Floating Rate Interest

ANS:B

31. The periodical interval at which interest is added is called?

a)Floating period b)Compounding Period

c)Fixed period d)Periodic payment

ANS:B

32. Rate of interest fluctuates according to market lending rate in?

a)Simple interest b)Flat rate interest

b)Compound interest d)Floating rate

ANS:D

33. ________Act offer incentive to attract people to invest in housing property.

a)Sales tax b)Income Tax Act 1961

c)Banking regulations Act d)Co-operative Societies Act

ANS:B

34. Loan designed for people who wish to sell the existing home and purchase and purchase another?

a)Bridge loan b)Housing loan

c)Demand Loan d)Personal loan

ANS:A

35. The first joint Stock Bank in India?

a)IDBI b)ICICI

c)Imperial Bank d)Allahabad Bank

ANS:C

36. The loan facility where neither ownership nor possession of asset is transferred as security to the bank

is called?

a)Pledge b)Mortgage

c)Hypothecation d)Property security

ANS:C

37. Repayment of an educational loan is deductable u/s_______ of the Income tax Act

a)70 b)80

c)60 d)90

ANS:B

38. BPLR means?

a)Bench Mark Prime lending Rate

b)Bench Mark Primary money lending rate

c)Bench Mark Primary Loan Repayment

d)Bank Primary Lending Rate

ANS:A

39. Compound interest is calculated by applying?

a)CI=P(I+R)n-P b)CI=P(I+R)n

c)CI=PNR d)CI=P(I+R)(I+R)n

ANS:A

40. If interest is changed on full amount of loan(principal) throughout the entire tenure of the loan is?

a)Float rate b)Fixed rate

c)Flat rate d)Diminishing rate

ANS:C

41. The borrower repays his loan by way of fixed monthly installments to the bank is called?

a)Equal month installment

b)Equally managed

c)Equated monthly installment

d)Equated money installment

ANS:D

42. RBI introduced _________ scheme in 1969?

a)SAA b)village adaptation

c)Lead bank d)DIR

ANS:C

43. ________act as a Consortium leader of the banking institutions in the district?

a)Lead Bank b)Social banking

c)Core banking d)District co-operative bank

ANS:A

44. The service area approach was introduced in?

a)June 1989 b)January 1989

c)April 1989 c)August 1989

ANS:C

45. In SAA, all Rural and Semi-Urban branches of all scheduled banks including RRBs were allocated

specific villages called?

a)Service approach b)development villages

c)Village area d)Service area

ANS:D

46. _________will give financial assistance at concessional rate of interest to income groups for

productive purposes

a)DIR b)Priority sector

c)Village adoption scheme b)SAA

ANS:A

47. Who introduced micro credit system in social banking segment?

a)Geoffery Growther of Prof.D.R Gadgil b) Nobel laureate & Mohammed Yunus

c)N.D Thiwari d)Banking Regulation Act 1949

ANS:B

48. _______is a registered or unregistered group of micro entrepreneur having homogenous social and

economic backgrounds.

a)Village adoption b)Microfinance

c)Priority sector d)Self help group

ANS:D

49. “Buy now and Pay later” is the motto of a ______.

a)ATM b)Debit card

c) credit card d)MICR

ANS:C

50. Credit card allow one to buy goods now and pay later called?

a)Buying on credit b)Buying on debit

c)Cash credit d)Cash Payment

ANS:B

51 TPIN Stands for

(a) Timing of the preparation of interest rate

(b) Techniques of personal index number

(c) Technological personal Index number

(d) Telephone personal identification number

ANS:D

52 E- Purse is a prepaid card and is known as ________________

(a) Stored value card (b) Electronic Card

(c) e-Cash (d) Electronic Credit Card

ANS:A

53 Card issuers, consumers, merchants and payment sever/Service producer are four parties in _________

(a) Cheque truncation (b) e -purse

(c) Debit Card (d) EFT

ANS:B

54 ________ means the transfer of money from one bank account to another electronically.

(a) EFT (b) SWIFT

(c) NEFT (d) E-Purse

ANS:A

55 Bank all over the world are enter - linked through satellite provided by __________

(a) PSAM (b) SWIFT

(c) EFT (d) NEFT

ANS:B

56 EFT is also known as

(a) Easy Fund Transfer (b) Maintenance Fund Transfer

(c) Exchange Fund Transfer (d) Paperless Banking

ANS:D

57 FIRPS stands for

(a) Foreign inward Remittance Payment Scheme

(b) Foreign Investment Remittance Payment Scheme

(c) Foreign inward Remittance Payment system

(d) Foreign Investment Remittance Payment System

ANS:B

58 ____________ is a system that facilitates individuals, firms and corporate to electronically transfer funds

from any bank branch to any individual having an account with any other bank branch in the country.

(a) NEFT (b) EFT

(c) SAA (d) RTGS

ANS:A

59 In case of non-credit or delay in credit to the beneficiary account, the NEFT of the respective bank can be

contacted to __________

(a) ECS (b) KYC

(c) CFC (d) IFSC

ANS:C

60 ___________ is an alpha-numeric code that uniquely identifies a bank branch participating NEFT System.

(a) IFS (b) IFSC

(c) FSC (d) RTGS

ANS:B

61 IFSC is an _______digit code

(a) 8 (b) 14

(c) 12 (d) 11

ANS:D

62 IFTP means _________

(a) Inter-bank finance settlement process (b) Inter-bank fund transfer process

(c) Inter-bank fund transfer programme (d) Inter-bank fund transfer payment

ANS:B

63 In RTGS Minimum amount to be remitted is ___________

(a) Rs.1,00,000 (b) Rs.2,00,000

(c) Rs.1,50,000 (d) Rs.50,000

ANS:B

64 In India, RTGS has been implemented on ___________

(a) 26 March 2004 (b) 26 March 1998

(c) 26 March 1994 (d) 26 March 2002

ANS:A

65 _________ is a funds transfer mechanism where transfer of money takes place from one bank account to

another bank account is real time.

(a) NEFT (b) EFT

(c) ECS (d) RTGS

ANS:D

66 BACS means ________

(a) Bankers Automated clearing services (b) Bankers Automatic clearing system

(c) Bankers Automatic collection service (d) Bankers Automatic clearance scheme

ANS:A

67 _______ Credit is used for fund transfer to large number of beneficiaries by a single debit to an account of

bank.

(a) EFT (b) IFSC

(c) ECS (d) Now of the above

ANS:C

68 ECS payment ______ code is essential

(a) MICR (b) RTGS

(c) IFSC (d) CTS

ANS:A

69 MICR is a numeric code that uniquely identifies a bank-branch participating in the ________ scheme.

(a) IFSC Credit Scheme (b) EFT Credit Scheme

(c) RTGS Credit Scheme (d) ECS Credit Scheme

ANS:D

70 MICR is a ________ digit code.

(a) 9 (b) 11

(c) 7 (d) 13

ANS:A

71 CTS was introduced RBI in _________

(a) February 1995 (b) January 2006

(c) July 2004 (d) February 2008

ANS:D

72 ________ conversion of physical cheque into electronic form for transmission to the paying bank.

(a) CTS (b) ECS

(c) RTGS (d) None of the above

ANS:A

73 CORE stands for ________

(a) Central operations of exchange (b) Centralized Online Real time exchange

(c) Challenge of Real time exchange (d) Centralized Online Real time Efficiency

ANS:B

74 Banking services that increasingly rest on technology and communication systems is popularly known as

___________

(a) Hi-tech banking (b) Internet Banking

(c) Mobile banking (d) All the above

ANS:A

75 _________ is also called virtual banking or anywhere banking.

(a) Hi-tech banking (b) Off shore banking

(c) Internet banking (d) None of the above

ANS:C

76 _________ banking implies co-operation among group of banks for various large scale banking operations

and to enjoy the economics of scale.

(a) Multiple banking (b) Consortium banking

(c) Mixed banking (d) Social banking

ANS:B

77 In _______ banking, different banks provide different banking services to a single borrower without

having a common arrangement or understanding between the lenders.

(a) Mixed banking (b) Group banking

(c) Multiple banking (d) Off-shore banking

ANS:C

78 _______ banking refers to the establishment of banking unite which deal only with foreign currencydenominated

assets & liabilities.

(a) Unit banking (b) Off-shore banking

(c) Foreign bank (d) Internet banking

ANS:B

79 Off-shore banking units by Indian Banks in _________

(a) Genevia (b) U..S

(c) London (d) India

ANS:D

80 The banking activities performed by foreign banks in a foreign country are known as _________

(a) Foreign bank (b) Hi-tech banking

(c) Off-shore bank (d) None of the above

ANS:C

81 Narasimham Committee - 1 report known as __________

(a) Banking sector reforms (b) Financial sector reforms

(c) Financial reforms (d) Economic sector reforms

ANS:B

82 Narasimham Committee - II report known as ________

(a) Financial Sector reforms (b) Banking Sector reforms

(c) Financial investment reforms (d) Financial system reforms

ANS:B

83 An individual or organisation which acted as a money changer and exchanged one currency for another’s

is ____________

(a) Foreign bank (b) Money lender

(c) Bank (d) Exchange bank

ANS:C

84 ICICI Bank is the first major ________ in the country

(a) Universal bank (b) Commercial bank

(c) Merchant banking (d) Scheduled bank

ANS:A

85 ___________ & ________ are owners funds of the bank, as they belong to the shareholders.

(a) Cash is hand & Cash at bank (b) Assets & liabilities

(c) Share capital & reserve fund (d) Cash & investment

ANS:C

86 The banking system which combines commercial banking with investment banking is known as

______________

(a) Multiple banking (b) Group banking

(c) Mixed banking (d) All of these

ANS:C

87 The German banks combined development banking with commercial banking and has came to be what is

known as __________

(a) Mixed banking (b) Group banking

(c) Investment banking (d) Unit banking

ANS:A

88 The first asset on the portfolio of a commercial banks asset is __________

(a) Cash in hand (b) Share capital

(c) Cash at bank (d) Reserves

ANS:A

89 ___________ called primary reserve of bank

(a) Retained earnings (b) Goodwill

(c) Cash (d) Investment

ANS:C

90 ________ is a highly liquid asset

(a) Commercial paper (b) Money at call of short notice

(c) Bridge loan (d) Treasury bill

ANS:B

91 The bill of exchange are regarded as _________

(a) Guilt-edged paper (b) Commercial paper

(c) Exchange instrument (d) None of these

ANS:A

92 Deposit are secondary or derived form the primary deposits is known as _______

(a) Credit creation (b) Multiple credit creation

(c) Single credit creation (d) Derivative deposit

ANS:D

93 ________ can be defined as the expansion of bank deposits through the process of more loans &

advances and investment.

(a) Primary Deposit (b) Credit creation

(c) Multiple Credit Creation (d) Lead bank scheme

ANS:B

94 The Government delegates the right of ________ to the central bank.

(a) Printing currency note (b) Coins

(c) One rupee note (d) All of these

ANS:A

95 The deposit balances kept by all commercial banks with the central bank are known as ____________

(a) Earning per share (b) Reserve

(c) Cash reserve (d) General reserve

ANS:C

96 ____________acts as an agent of RBI

(a) SBI (b) Scheduled Bank

(c) Commercial bank (d) Central bank

ANS:A

97 ___________ lender of last resort

(a) Central bank (b) Scheduled bank

(c) Commercial bank (d) None of these

ANS:A

98 DFHI stands for _____________

(a) Discount & Finance Housing investment Ltd. (b) Direct Finance House of India Ltd.

(c) Discount & Finance House of India Ltd. (d) District Finance House of India Ltd.

ANS:C

99 DFHI was set up by RBI in ____________

(a) 1988 (b) 1962

(c) 1982 (d) 1972

ANS:A

100 The first Indian Commercial bank to set up a merchant banking division in 1972.

(a) SBT (b) SBI

(c) Bank of India (d) Canara Bank

ANS:B

101 When customer offers immovable property like land and building as security for a loan, charge thereon is

created by means of __________

(a) Pledge (b) Hypothecation

(c) Mortgage (d) None of these

ANS:C

102 According to Sec. 19(2) of the Banking Regulation Act, a bank can hold shares in a company not

exceeding.

(a) 20% (b) 25%

(c) 30% (d) 35%

ANS:C

103 A debit card holder makes payment for purchases -

(a) after 15 days (b) after 20 days

(c) after a month (d) Immediately through his account

ANS:D

104 RBI introduced a __________operated through repo and reverse repo

(a) LAF (b) CRR

(c) SRR (d) CRAR

ANS:A

105 ____________ is an asset which does not disclose any problem in terms of repayment.

(a) Doubtful asset (b) Sub-standard assets

(c) Loss asset (d) Standard assets

ANS:D

106 Asset remained as NPA for a period not exceeding 12 months _______

(a) Sub standard asset (b) Performing asset

(c) Standard asset (d) Loss asset

ANS:A

107 Asset remained in the sub-standard category for 12 months or more is ___________

(a) Loss asset (b) NPA

(c) Doubtful asset (d) None of these

ANS:C

108 NPA is defined as a credit facility in respect which the interest and /or instalment of principal has

remained overdue for ______ days.

(a) 120 (b) 75

(c) 365 (d) 90

ANS:D

109 ________ was the main reason for the reduced profitability of the commercial banks in India.

(a) LAF (b) CRAR

(c) NPA (d) CAMELS

ANS:C

110 Before sanctioning loans banks should updated their __________ profiles and to follow credit rating

exercises.

(a) Cash balance (b) KYC

(c) Cash statement (d) Personal loan

ANS:B

112 When an asset is in the sub-standard category is ___________ of total outstanding.

(a) 10% (b) 25%

(c) 40% (d) 100%

ANS:A

113 CRAR Means -

(a) Credit Reserve Asset Ratio (b) Capital Reserve Asset Ratio

(c) Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio (d) Capital Reserve Adequacy Ratio

ANS:C

114 CRAR was based on ________norms

(a) Basel (b) Adequacy ratio

(c) Capital (d) Liquidity

ANS:A

115 _________ ratio is a barometer for measuring the safety of banks.

(a) EPS (b) Capital Adequacy

(c) Standard Assets (d) Cash reserve

ANS:B

116 _________ means the ratio of share capital of a bank to the risk adjusted value of assets.

(a) CRAR (b) Retained earnings

(c) CAMELS (d) Capital adequacy

ANS:D

117 _________ is an international bank-rating system with which bank supervisory authorities are

institutions according to six factors.

(a) BASEL (b) CAMELS

(c) CRAR (d) SARFAESI

ANS:B

118 The Head office of __________ is in Basel

(a) DRT (b) IFC

(c) BIS (d) IDBI

ANS:C

119 _________ are popularly known as Basel Norms.

(a) BIS (b) CRR

(c) CAR (d) BFS

ANS:A

120 BIS was established in _______

(a) 1920 (b) 1930

(c) 1950 (d) 1970

ANS:B

121 The three pillars of basel II capital accord for financial stability are Minimum capital requirements

supervisory review and________

(a) Debt recovery (b) Market orientation

(c) Market discipline (d) Liquidity

ANS:C

122 The Banking Ombudsman scheme was first introduced in..............

(a) June 1994 (b) June 1995

(c) September 1998 (d) June 2002

ANS:B

123 ........is a quasi judicial authority appointed by the RBI to redress customer complaints against certain

deficiency in banking services

(a) Banking Ombudsman (b) Consumer redressel

(c) Adjudicating authority (d) None of these

ANS:A

124 ............... were set up by passing recovery of debts due to Banks and financial institutions Act 1993

(a) RTGS (b) CAMELS

(c) DRTS (d) CRAR

ANS:C

125 The time limit allowed under Ombudsman scheme for a customer is................

(a) 6 months (b) Two year

(c) 3 year (d) One year

ANS:D

126 To constitute a............ there must be some recognizable course or habit of dealing in the regular banking

business

(a) Banker (b) Customer

(c) Creditor (d) Debtor

ANS:B

127 The relationship between banker and customer is broadly classified into............ and ........

(a) General and special (b) Agent and principal

(c) Debtors and creditors (d) All of these

ANS:A

128 The fundamental or primary relationships between a banker and customer is that of ...... and.................

(a) Debtor and creditor (b) Agent and principal

(c) Trustee and Beneficiary (d) General and special

ANS:A

129 When an amount is deposited into an account banker becomes the............. and the customer becomes

the...............

(a) Creditors & debtor (b) Drawer and Drawee

(c) Payer and Payee (d) Debtor and creditor

ANS:D

130 The bankers debt is known as.................

(a) Cash reserve (b) Deposit

(c) Advances (d) None of the above

ANS:B

131 One who is employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealing with a third person

is..................

(a) Principal (b) Broker

(c) Agent (d) Commission

ANS:C

132 The obligation of a banker to honour his customers cheques in extinguished on receipt of an order of the

court is known as...........

(a) Court order (b) Garnishee order

(c) Judicial order (d) By law

ANS:B

133 .....................often used as provisional remedy

(a) Garnishee order (b) Consumer grievances

(c) Consumer redressal (d) None of these

ANS:A

134 Section 4 of the...... Act a banker may be asked to produce a copy of his customers account before the

court for verification

(a) Income tax Act 1961 (b) Banking regulation Act 1949

(c) Prevention of money lender Act 2002 (d) Banker book evidence Act, 1891

ANS:D

135 Banker has.... lien

(a) Particular (b) Special

(c) General (d) Primary

ANS:C

136 The role of a banker when he collects cheques, buys and sells, shares, pays insurance premium is that

of.........

(a) Debtor (b) Agent

(c) broker (d) Drawer

ANS:B

137 Section 12 of............. Act lays down obligation on banker to maintain a record of all transactions verify

and maintain the records of the identity of all clients and furnish information when required

(a) Prevention of money lending Act 2002 (b) Bankers book evidence Act, 1891

(c) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (d) None of these

ANS:A

138 ............ right enable a banker to combine a debit balance in one account of the customer with his credit

balance is some other account

(a) Right of particular lien (b) Right of appropriation

(c) Right to set off (d) Right to general lien

ANS:C

139 Banker can exercise the right of set off

(a) If the two accounts are in the same name and same right

(b) After the garnishee order if received

(c) If the account is joint account and the debt due is from a single account holder

(d) Even if the customers dues are payable at a future date

ANS:A

140 ............. case apply where the account goes into debit the first item on the debt side is discharged by first

item on the credit side

(a) Clayton's case (b) Right to set off

(c) Garnishee order (d) Byelaw

ANS:A

141 A fixed deposit is meant for those investors who want to deposit a........... of money for a fixed period

(a) Small amount (b) Interval

(c) Lumsum (d) Maturity

ANS:C

142 Banks maintain customer's accounts both for....... and..........

(a) Loan and payment (b) Deposits and loans

(c) Loans and interest (d) None of these

ANS:B

143 .........................are running account with unlimited operational facilities

(a) Demand deposit account (b) Cumulative deposit account

(c) Savings account (d) Time deposit account

ANS:A

144 Current account are also called............

(a) Savings account (b) Time deposit account

(c) Demand deposit account (d) Term deposit account

ANS:C

145 The minimum period for which a commercial bank can accept term deposit is............

(a) 8 days (b) 7 days

(c) 30 days (d) 15 days

ANS:B

146 The minimum amount for which a certificate of Deposit may be issued by a bank

(a) Rs.1 lakh (b) Rs. 50000/-

(c) Rs. 5 lakh (d) Rs. 10 lakh

ANS:A

147 Interest on fixed deposit is compounded..........

(a) Monthly (b) Half yearly

(c) Quarterly (d) Yearly basis

ANS:C

148 In sweep in facility, banks maintain two accounts for a customer, one savings/current account and

another................account

(a) Recurring account (b) Cumulative deposit account

(c) Fixed deposit account (d) Term deposit

ANS:D

149 ................. is meant for some one who wants to invest a specific sum of money on a monthly basis for a

fixed rate of return

(a) RD (b) SD

(c) FD (d) All of these

ANS:A

150 The minimum investment of recurring deposit varies.................

(a) 10000 (b) 1000

(c) 100 (d) 25000

ANS:C

151 The sweep- in facility gives high interest rate for ...............deposit

(a) FD (b) RD

(c) NRE (d) None of these

ANS:A

152 .............. account is opened by NRIs in Indian Banks

(a) NRO (b) NRI

(c) NRE (d) RFC

ANS:C

153 Interest for NRE account is fixed on the basis of..............

(a) LIBOR (b) LIBER

(c) LIBOUR (d) LIBAR

ANS:A

154 FCNR deposits are.................. operated by NRIs in Indian bank for a fixed period in major foreign

currencies

(a) NRE deposit (b) Term deposit

(c) Time deposit (d) Recurring deposit

ANS:B

155 NRI who has returned home after staying abroad for a minimum period of.......... can open an RFC

account

(a) One year (b) 180 days

(c) 7 year (d) 4 years

ANS:A

156 .......... is an anti money laundering measure specified in the prevention of money laundering act 2002

(a) SAA (b) FCNR

(c) KYC (d) NRE

ANS:C

157 A cheque is ...................

(a) Instrument (b) Negotiable instrument

(c) Transferred instrument (d) None of these

ANS:B

158 As per the Act Negotiable instrument means..................

(a) Document (b) Transferred instrument

(c) Exchange instrument (d) Promissory note

ANS:A

159 The maker of a cheque is called the.....................

(a) Drawer (b) Drawee

(c) Payee (d) All the above

ANS:A

160 Bill of exchange is a................

(a) Printed form (b) Crossing

(c) Need not be on a printed form (d) Conditional order

ANS:C

161 ...........cheque is easily transferred from one person to another by mere delivery

(a) Open cheque (b) Bearer cheque

(c) Order cheque (d) Stale cheque

ANS:B

162 The payees name is written on the cheque is called.................

(a) Mutilated cheque (b) Open cheque

(c) Crossed cheque (d) Order cheque

ANS:D

163 .................... cheque cannot be transferred from one person to another by mere delivery

(a) Open cheque (b) Crossed cheque

(c) Order cheque (d) Stale cheque

ANS:C

164 A cheque can be crossed by drawing two transverse parallel lines through top left corner of the cheque is

called ............

(a) General crossing (b) Special crossing

(c) Crossed cheque (d) Post dated cheque

ANS:C

165 A cheque is not meant for indefinite circulation is called............

(a) Open cheque (b) Stale cheque

(c) Crossed cheque (d) Post dated cheque

ANS:B

166 ................ cheque is presented for payment within 3 months of the date appearing on the cheque

(a) Order cheque (b) Open cheque

(c) Bearer cheque (d) Stale cheque

ANS:D

167 If a cheque is torn into two or more pieces and presented for payment is called a.........

(a) Mixed cheque (b) Mutilated cheque

(c) Group cheque (d) Ante-dated cheque

ANS:B

168 Cheque in which the drawer mentions the date earlier to the date of presenting it for payment is

called.............

(a) Ante-dated cheque (b) Crossed cheque

(c) Post-dated cheque (d) None of these

ANS:A

169 If a cheque bears a date which is yet to come is termed as a.................

(a) Post-dated cheque (b) Ante-dated cheque

(c) Marketing cheque (d) Stale cheque

ANS:A

170 ............... is a person who become the possessor or payee of a negotiable instrument for a consideration

(a) Holder (b) Electronic cheque

(c) Holder in due course (d) Holder of the instrument

ANS:C

171 .................. cheque is generated, written and signed electronically

(a) e-cheque (b) Cheque truncation

(c) Paperless cheque (d) Electronic cheque

ANS:D

172 The physical movement of a paper cheque issued stops is...............

(a) Electronic cheque (b) Marking cheque

(c) Cheque truncation (d) Mutilated cheque

ANS:C

173 In general crossing two.................... transverse lines are compulsory

(a) Parallel (b) Vertical

(c) Horizontal (d) Straight

ANS:A

174 When the name of the collecting banker is written on the face of the cheque it is called...........

(a) Crossing (b) Particular crossing

(c) General crossing (d) Special crossing

ANS:D

175 Account payee crossing is also called as................

(a) Restrictive crossing (b) Reserve crossing

(c) Account crossing (d) Payment crossing

ANS:A

176 If a cheque contains a future date is called

(a) Present cheque (b) Post-dated cheque

(c) Future cheque (d) Ante-dated cheque

ANS: ANS:B

177 .................means signing on the back of a negotiable instrument with a view to transfer the title in the

instrument to another person

(a) Underwriting (b) Document

(c) Instrument (d) Endorsement

ANS:D

178 The endorsement on the back of the instrument is full, a separate paper can be attached called

(a) Worksheet (b) Allonge

(c) Endorser (d) Endorsee

ANS:B

179 If the endorser merely signs his name on the back of the instrument without mentioning the name of the

person to whom the instrument is transferred it is called..............

(a) Blank endorsement (b) Full endorsement

(c) Particular endorsement (d) Special endorsement

ANS:A

180 The endorser undertakes to compensate the endorsee in the event of dishonour. But here the endorser

escapes from the liability of dishonour is.....................

(a) Qualified endorsement (b) Sanfrais endorsement

(c) Facultative endorsement (d) Sans recource endorsement

ANS:D

181 If the endorser waives any of his rights on endorsement is called

(a) Facultative endorsement (b) Restrictive endorsement

(c) Conditional endorsement (d) Perpro endorsement

ANS:A

182 The endorser makes it clear that he does not want any expense to be incurred on his account on the

instrument by writing the words is.................

(a) Sans recourse endorsement (b) Facultative endorsement

(c) Perpro endorsement (d) San frais endorsement

ANS:D

183 ................. is an endorsement in which only a part of the amount of the instrument is endorsed

(a) Partial endorsement (b) Semi endorsement

(c) Single endorsement (d) None of these

ANS:A

184 Endorsement is made by an authorised person on behalf of another is.............

(a) Authorised endorsement (b) Perpro endorsement

(c) Recognised endorsement (d) Qualified endorsement

ANS:B

185 Cheque contains a previous date is................

(a) Stale cheque (b) Ante dated cheque

(c) Post date cheque (d) MICR cheques

ANS:B

186 NABARD was set up on

(a) 1962 (b) 1952

(c) 1982 (d) 1972

ANS:C

187 SCBs stands for.................

(a) Small credit banks (b) State co operative Bank

(c) Small co operative bank (d) None of these

ANS:B

188 ............ is one of the aspects of micro finance

(a) Macro credit (b) Mobilisation of credit

(c) Micro credit (d) Micro debit

ANS:C

189 ................... is the provision of credit service to poor clients

(a) Micro credit (b) Micro finance

(c) Macro credit (d) Macro finance

ANS:A

190 ........................ means a farmer cultivating agricultural land of more than 1 hectare and upto 2 hectare

(a) Marginal farmer (b) Other farmer

(c) Small farmer (d) Single farmer

ANS:C

191 ..................... is the apex co operative bank in a state

(a) State co operative Bank (b) District cooperative Bank

(c) Co operative Society Bank (d) Central co operative Bank

ANS:A

192 Apex bank for rural credit is

(a) RRB (b) PACS

(c) LDB (d) NABARD

ANS:B

193 Agricultural Debt relief scheme established in...................

(a) 2005 (b) 2006

(c) 2008 (d) 2004

ANS:C

194 The nationalization of 14 major commercial banks was in June 1969 and six more banks were

nationalized in April.................

(a) 1972 (b) 1980

(c) 1979 (d) 1984

ANS:B

195 Cash flow statement is.......................

(a) Another name for the cash book

(b) A statement showing movement of cash from the firm to the bank and back

(c) A statement showing cash accruals and disbursement over period

(d) A statement showing cash balance held at the end of every business day

ANS:B

196 Credit information report contains.................

(a) A recommendation (b) Factual information on credit history

(c) A guarantee about repayment (d) Commitment by the borrower to repay

ANS:B

197 Membership of a credit information company is not mandatory for..................

(a) Private sector bank (b) An urban co operative Bank

(c) Housing finance company (d) Another credit information company

ANS:D

198 ................. is the first credit information company set in India in the year 2000

(a) CIR (b) SIBIL

(c) CEBIL (d) CIBIL

ANS:D

199 A term loan is not secured by

(a) Pledge of goods (b) Hypothecation of movable assets

(c) Legal mortgage of fixed assets (d) Equitable mortgage

ANS:B

200 Canfin Homes Ltd. Is a subsidiary of............. bank

(a) Federal Bank (b) SBI

(c) Canara Bank (d) South Indian Bank.

ANS:C